Question Easy:
A 25-year-old woman presents to her GP with fatigue, pallor, and breathlessness on exertion. Her blood tests reveal a microcytic, hypochromic anaemia. What is the most likely underlying cause for her symptoms? 😊
A) Iron deficiency anaemia
B) Pernicious anaemia
C) Vitamin B12 deficiency
D) Sickle cell anaemia
E) Aplastic anaemia
Explanations & Answers:
Question Easy Answer:
A) Iron deficiency anaemia
Question Easy Explanation:
The combination of fatigue, pallor, and microcytic, hypochromic anaemia is classic for iron deficiency anaemia, a common condition often due to dietary insufficiency or menstrual losses in young women. NICE guidelines indicate that this is typically the most prevalent cause of anaemia in this demographic.
Question Medium:
A 60-year-old man with a history of hypertension presents with sudden-onset severe abdominal and back pain. He is found to be hypotensive and tachycardic. What is the most likely diagnosis? 🚨
A) Gallstones
B) Acute pancreatitis
C) Ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA)
D) Diverticulitis
E) Kidney stones
Question Medium Answer:
C) Ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA)
Question Medium Explanation:
The clinical presentation of severe abdominal and back pain, coupled with hypotension and tachycardia, is highly indicative of a ruptured AAA. In older patients, particularly males with a history of cardiovascular disease, this is a crucial diagnosis to consider. NHS guidelines emphasize immediate surgical intervention to prevent further complications.
Question Hard:
A 35-year-old woman presents with recurrent episodes of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Laboratory workup reveals an elevated activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) that does not correct on mixing studies. Which condition is most likely associated with these findings? 🩺
A) Factor V Leiden mutation
B) Protein C deficiency
C) Antithrombin III deficiency
D) Lupus anticoagulant
E) Prothrombin G20210A mutation
Question Hard Answer:
D) Lupus anticoagulant
Question Hard Explanation:
The prolonged aPTT that does not correct with mixing studies suggests an inhibitor rather than a deficiency. This is characteristic of the presence of a lupus anticoagulant, a type of antiphospholipid antibody associated with an increased risk of thrombosis, despite the name implying anticoagulation. NICE guidelines recommend treatment with anticoagulation for thrombotic events in this context.
Medical fact of the day: Did you know that the spleen is the largest lymphatic organ and acts as a filter for blood? It helps remove old or damaged red blood cells and can produce new blood cells in cases of severe anaemia – a fascinating auxiliary role in the vascular system!
Quote of the day: “In the care of others, let your heart guide your hands and your knowledge enlighten your path.”